I am saying that the Holocaust story is true and complex (as it also involved Russia during and after WWII). However, the fact that 6 million Jews were systematically gassed to death by Germany is not true. That does not mean no Jews were executed by Germany as one must assume that in wartime this occurs. But all in all, Germany wanted the inmates healthy and productive; not dead.
I would prefer not to stir up a hornets nest here so email me at
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But the short answer is that there were indeed work camps for forced labor to run the factories as all the German men were in the military. But now the museum at Auschwitz states that no one there was gassed to death, whereas it used to say 4 million were.
The horrible pictures we all saw of naked starving prisoners were taken at the end of the war and that condition originated the last few months of the war. When a country is to be seized the attacker encircles it and cuts off all supplies to starve it into submission. When this occurred in Germany the encirclement cut off imports of Zyklon B, the gas they used do delouse clothing, as apposed to the Allies use of DDT. Without Zyklon B fleas infested the clothing (thus the nakedness) spreading Typhus. Typhus stops the body from absorbing and processing water which in turn stops the digestion of food leading to a slow starvation. Thus the emaciated survivors.
If the above does not make you ponder than consider this. One of the reasons Germany lost the war was because of their lack of fuel. So why would they train transport prisoners a thousand miles away, tattoo them for inventory purposes, gas them to death then burn their bodies (there is no evidence of mass graves except the ones at the last month or so of the war. Wouldn't it have been cheaper using a local shot to the head and then a mass grave?
There are many more facts but that is the gist of the beginning of the con to run the gassing deaths story. You might want to research the Balfour agreement (circa WWII) / Declaration (1917), which brought the U. S. into the war which promised Palestine land to the Jews, which the Allies would have to steal after WWII was just fought because Germany had the nerve to steal land. Thus the con was needed. Also research that the NY Times published a story immediately after WWI stating that 6 million Jews were exterminated in that war but it failed to get the results wanted by the U.S. Bankers so it was recycled again in WWII. All of the above was set into motion by U.S. bankers.
Also research that neither General Patton, Eisenhower nor Winston Churchill ever mentioned the holocaust in their war memoirs.
Also note that the "Holocaust" story is the ONLY fact in all of history to be forced to be believed by law. Could it be because it is a con still being played out today? Is that possible? Could the guilt of 6 million dead still be used today to fund Israel?
There is much more physical evidence if you request it. Folks, please feel free to disagree with me if you wish. However, I will not debate it. I will only provide more facts and their sources if requested. I personally made a long deliberate review of the facts and see no way for me to be convinced otherwise. Heck, I even waited a few months and went back to disprove my research and conclusion. I struck out there completely even though I really put my heart into it.
